From: | Robert Stevens <robert.stevens@ucl.ac.uk> |
To: | 'A.P. Simester' <simester@nus.edu.sg> |
Hedley, Steve </O=UNIVERSITY COLLEGE CORK/OU=MSEXCHANGE/CN=ACADEMIC/CN=LAW/CN=S.HEDLEY> | |
obligations@uwo.ca | |
Date: | 29/10/2009 09:43:26 UTC |
Subject: | RE: Liability of public authorities to apologize |
Sorry (sincerely) Steve, I was unclear.
I approve
of orders of this kind, for very much the reasons you give. I
don't think
damages are awarded to make good losses but rather to achieve
the nearest
approximation to the wrong not having been committed. One way of
illustrating
that is, as you say, damages for pain and suffering. I approve
of them too,
and think their (partial?) abolition in Australia is based upon
a
misconception of what damages are there to do.
Apologies are similarly
substitutive in the sense that they are our doing
something in place of what
we can no longer do (not commit the wrong in the
first place). We use the
word apology in the sense of a (poor) substitute as
well (eg "Stevens'
apology for a book on the law of torts".)
I wonder however whether it is
right that something which is an expression
of regret which is wholly
insincere really is an apology in the proper
sense. We see the same thing
with children all the time.
"Apologise to your sister for hitting
her."
"Soo-rrrrryyyyy"
"No, that isn't an apology, you must mean
it."
I am minded to think that an insincere apology doesn't exist, like
a
truthful lie. That doesn't mean that compelling expressions of regret
isn't
a good thing.
Rob
-----Original Message-----
From: Hedley,
Steve [mailto:S.Hedley@ucc.ie]
Sent: 29
October 2009 08:35
To: obligations@uwo.ca
Subject: RE: Liability of public
authorities to apologize
Well, there are two points here - whether a
compelled apology is really an
apology at all, and whether an order to
apologise can be an appropriate
response to a wrong.
On the semantic
point, I'm afraid ordinary usage is against Rob. An
insincere apology
is still an apology - no doubt it is a different thing
from a sincere
apology, but it's still a species of apology. As to which is
more
satisfying, I think that will depend on the circumstances and the
parties
involved. Some people would get considerable satisfaction from an
insincere
apology, knowing that their wrongdoer will really hate having to
make it. And
whether that's something we should encourage must depend on
wider
considerations than have been canvassed here. Much the same issues
have been
raised in relation to restorative justice (which, at the risk
of
oversimplifying, is mostly about making the perpetrators of crimes act as
if
they were sorry).
On the remedies point, I don't see the
problem. Remedies for torts almost
never give back precisely what was
lost. Someone who loses a leg or the use
of a leg doesn't get back that
thing, but rather a sum of money. Sometimes
the correspondence between
what was lost and what is awarded is small,
sometimes it is large, but there
is almost always a significant difference
(and if Rob is against apologies, I
can't see how he can be in favour of
damages for pain and suffering, where
again the remedy bears only the most
distant relation to what was
lost).
Steve Hedley
UCC
-----Original
Message-----
From: Robert Stevens [mailto:robert.stevens@ucl.ac.uk]
Sent:
28 October 2009 20:28
To: Lionel Smith, Prof.
Cc: ODG
Subject: Re:
Liability of public authorities to apologize
Can an apology be
involuntary?
I don't think so. An apology is a voluntary recognition of
wrongdoing.
They ought to apologise but can a court order compel a genuine
apology?
Making someone going through the form of making an apology like
this is
like putting the wrongdoer in the stocks. It is a way of expressing
our
condemnation of the wrong which has been done, in a public
and
humiliating
way, but it isn't really an apology. I approve of any
order which seeks
to
place the plaintiff in as near a position as can be
achieved to the
wrong
not having occurred, and this has no necessary
connection with making
good
by compensation of any loss suffered as a
result of the wrong.
We see the same thing in the UK all the time with
newspapers issuing
"apologies" for libels. The Sun may go through the form of
making an
apology, but it isn't really apologising.
Rob
>
Earlier this year, a Canadian taxpayer brought a claim in the
BC
Supreme
> Court against the Canada Revenue Agency for bad faith
tax
investigation.
> He
> succeeded in negligence and also
obtained a remedy under s. 24 of the
> Charter for the breach of his s. 8
right to be secure against
unreasonable
> search and seizure. Section
24 provides,
>
> 24. (1) Anyone whose rights or freedoms, as
guaranteed by this
Charter,
> have
> been infringed or denied may
apply to a court of competent
jurisdiction to
> obtain such remedy as
the court considers appropriate and just in the
>
circumstances.
>
> As you can see in the attached documents, the
jury awarded $300,000
for
> negligence, with zero for punitive damages.
However, for the s. 24
claim,
> they awarded $1,000,000 and ordered the
Minister to apologize to the
> plaintiff. I am not sure whether this has
happened before under s. 24
(or
> in
> any other context except
perhaps a Seinfeld episode). But others might
> know
>
better.
>
> The Crown has appealed....
>
>
Lionel
>
>
--
Robert Stevens
Professor of
Commercial Law
University College
London